Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 01.07.2025 03:39
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Terraforming Mars Might Actually Work and Scientists Now Have a Plan to Try It - ZME Science
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What is the best reply if your boyfriend asks you,"why do you love me?"
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.